NEET Biology Previous Year Questions with Solutions

There are three sections in the NEET exam. They are:

• Physics
• Chemistry
• Biology

In Biology, there are two parts; one is Botany, and the other is Zoology. The NEET exam booklet contains 200 questions. In that, 180 questions need to be answered, and each carries 4 marks. So, the maximum mark is 720.

This article will cover some of the most important questions which were asked in the Biology (Botany and Zoology) section of the NEET exam.

Previous Year Questions – NEET Biology

Let us see some of the previously asked questions in the Biology section of the NEET exam:

1. When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in a person’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

Options:

1. Safety testing
2. Biopiracy
3. Gene therapy
4. Molecular diagnosis

Answer: Option C – Gene Therapy

2. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, the addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

Options:

1. Polysaccharides
2. RNA
3. DNA
4. Histones

Answer: Option C – DNA 

3. When the centromere is located in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred to as:

Option:

1. Acrocentric
2. Metacentric
3. Telocentric
4. Sub-metacentric

Answer: Option B – Metacentric

4. Which factor leads to the Founder effect in a population?

1. Genetic drift
2. Natural selection
3. Genetic recombination
4. Mutation

Answer: Option A – Genetic drift

5. Which mechanism might the competing species have evolved for their survival, in spite of interspecific competition in nature? 

1. Predation
2. Resource partitioning
3. Competitive release
4. Mutualism

Answer: Option B – Resource partitioning

6. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

1. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
2. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
3. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
4. 7-nucleate and 7-celled

Answer: Option B – 8-nucleate and 7-celled

7. What is the site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism?

1. Leaf
2. Shoot apex
3. Stem
4. Axillary bud

Answer: Option A – Leaf

8. Which of the below-given plants is monoecious?

1. Cycas circinalis
2. Carica papaya
3. Chara
4. Marchantia polymorpha

Answer: Option C – Chara

8. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

1. a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
2. b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
3. c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
4. d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm

a b c d

1. iv ii i iii
2. iv i iii ii
3. iii i iv ii
4. ii iii iv i

Answer: Option C

9. Which of the below-given algae produce Carrageen?

1. Blue-green algae
2. Green algae
3. Brown algae
4. Red algae

Answer: Option D – Red algae

10. Which of the below-stated stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

1. Telophase II
2. Metaphase I
3. Metaphase II
4. Anaphase I

Answer: Option D – Anaphase I

11. How can mutants in plant cells be induced:

1. Zeatin
2. Kinetin
3. Infrared rays
4. Gamma rays

Answer: Option D – Gamma rays

12. In the following equation: GPP-R=NPP, what does R represent?

1. Respiration losses
2. Radiant energy
3. Retardation factor
4. Environment factor

Answer: Option A – Respiration losses

13. What is the plant hormone that is used to destroy weeds in a field?

1. IBA
2. IAA
3. NAA
4. 2, 4-D

Answer: Option D – 2, 4-D

14. Plants follow various pathways in response to the surroundings or phases of life to form multiple types of structures. What is the name of this ability?

1. Maturity
2. Elasticity
3. Flexibility
4. Plasticity

Answer: Option D – Plasticity

15. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. The pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
2. The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted.
3. The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright.
4. The pyramid of energy is always upright.

Answer: Option C – The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright

16. Gemmae are present in:

1. Some Liverworts
2. Mosses
3. Pteridophytes
4. Some Gymnosperms

Answer: Option A – Some Liverworts

17. What is the first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:

1. Phosphoglyceric acid
2. Pyruvic acid
3. Oxaloacetic acid
4. Succinic acid

Answer: Option C – Oxaloacetic acid

18. Which of the below-mentioned algae has mannitol as reserve food material?

1. Ulothrix
2. Ectocarpus
3. Gracilaria
4. Volvox

Answer: Option B – Ectocarpus

19. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:

1. Bright blue bands
2. Yellow bands
3. Bright orange bands
4. Dark red bands

Answer: Option C – Bright orange bands

20. Diadelphous stamens are found in:

1. China rose and citrus
2. China rose
3. Citrus
4. Pea

Answer: Option D – Pea

21. Which ones mentioned below are not secondary metabolites in plants?

1. Rubber, gums
2. Morphine, codeine
3. Amino acids, glucose
4. Vinblastine, curcumin

Answer: Option C – Amino acids, glucose

Also Read:

22. The number of nutrients, namely carbon, phosphorus, nitrogen and calcium, present in the soil at any given time, can be referred to as:

1. Standing crop
2. Climax
3. Climax community
4. Standing state

Answer: Option D – Standing state

23. Genera such as Salvinia and Selaginella produce two types of spores. Such plants are called:

1. Heterosporous
2. Homosorus
3. Heterosorus
4. Homosporous

Answer: Option A – Heterosporous

24. Pollen grains retain their viability for months after release in which of the following pairs of families?

1. Rosaceae; Leguminosae
2. Poaceae; Rosaceae
3. Poaceae; Leguminosae
4. Poaceae; Solanaceae

Answer: Option A – Rosaceae; Leguminosae

25. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called:

1. Polymorphic DNA
2. Satellite DNA
3. Repetitive DNA
4. Single nucleotides

Answer: Option C – Repetitive DNA

26. Match Column 1 with Column 2.

Column 1 Column 2

1. a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
2. b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
3. c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
4. d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia

a b c d

1. iv iii ii i
2. ii iv i iii
3. i ii iii iv
4. iii i iv ii

Answer: Option B

27. What is the role of RNA polymerase III while processing transcription in eukaryotes?

1. Transcribes only snRNAs
2. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.85S)
3. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
4. Transcribes precursor of mRNA

Answer: Option C – Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA

28. In the exponential growth equation, Nt = N0ert e represents:

1. The base of geometric logarithms
2. The base of number logarithms
3. The base of exponential logarithms
4. The base of natural logarithms

Answer: Option D – The base of natural logarithms

29. Match List 1 with List 2.

List 1 List 2

1. a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
2. b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
3. c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
4. d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds

Choose the right answer from the options provided below.

a b c d

1. iv iii i ii
2. iv i ii iii
3. i iv iii ii
4. ii i iv iii

Answer: Option B

30. Match List 1 with List 2.

List 1 List 2

1. a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesised
2. b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
3. c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between initiation and mitosis of DNA replication
4. d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

Choose the right answer from the options provided below.

a b c d

1. ii iv iii i
2. iii ii i iv
3. iv ii iii i
4. iv i ii iii

Answer: Option D

31: Sperm receptors binding in mammals are present on:

1. Zona pellucida
2. Corona radiata
3. Vitelline membrane
4. Perivitelline space

Answer: Option A – Zona pellucida

32. Which meiotic prophase stage shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

1. Pachytene
2. Leptotene
3. Zygotene
4. Diakinesis

Answer: Option D – Diakinesis

33. Which unique recognition sequence is identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA:

1. Poly (A) tail sequences
2. Degenerate primer sequence
3. Okazaki sequences
4. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

Answer: Option D – Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

34. Which of the below-mentioned statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

1. These muscles have no striations
2. They are involuntary muscles
3. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
4. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels

Answer: Option C – Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs

35. The organelles present in the endomembrane system are:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
2. The endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles
3. Golgi complex, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
4. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Endoplasmic reticulum and Lysosomes

Answer: Option B – Endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles

36. How are venereal diseases spread?

(a) Using sterile needles

(b) Transfusion of blood from an infected person

(c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing

(e) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the options provided below.

1. (a), (b) and (c) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (a) and (c) only

Answer: Option C

37. In a cross between a female and male, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what will be the percentage of the progeny that will be diseased?

1. 25 %
2. 50 %
3. 75 %
4. 90 %

Answer: Option A – 25 %

38. Sphincter of Oddi is present at:

1. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
2. Gastro-oesophageal junction
3. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
4. Ileo-caecal junction

Answer: Option A – Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum

39. Which of the following mentioned below is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

1. Improve protein content
2. Improve resistance to diseases
3. Improve vitamin content
4. Improve micronutrient and mineral content

Answer: Option B – Improve resistance to diseases

40. Erythropoietin hormone that stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

1. Alpha cells of the pancreas
2. The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis
3. The cells of bone marrow
4. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

Answer: Option D – Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

Conclusion

Before appearing for the NEET examination, the aspirants should put in a lot of effort in order to obtain maximum marks. In the meantime, they have to practice the previously asked questions to improve their time management skills. It will help them get used to the exam pattern and solve the answers correctly in the exam. In this article, we have included some of the frequently asked questions in NEET Biology in the past few years.

FAQs about NEET Biology Previous Year Questions with Solutions