There are three sections in the NEET exam. They are:
- Physics
- Chemistry
- Biology
In Biology, there are two parts; one is Botany, and the other is Zoology. The NEET exam booklet contains 200 questions. In that, 180 questions need to be answered, and each carries 4 marks. So, the maximum mark is 720.
This article will cover some of the most important questions which were asked in the Biology (Botany and Zoology) section of the NEET exam.
Previous Year Questions – NEET Biology
Let us see some of the previously asked questions in the Biology section of the NEET exam:
1. When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in a person’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
Options:
- Safety testing
- Biopiracy
- Gene therapy
- Molecular diagnosis
Answer: Option C – Gene Therapy
2. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, the addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
Options:
- Polysaccharides
- RNA
- DNA
- Histones
Answer: Option C – DNA
3. When the centromere is located in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred to as:
Option:
- Acrocentric
- Metacentric
- Telocentric
- Sub-metacentric
Answer: Option B – Metacentric
4. Which factor leads to the Founder effect in a population?
- Genetic drift
- Natural selection
- Genetic recombination
- Mutation
Answer: Option A – Genetic drift
5. Which mechanism might the competing species have evolved for their survival, in spite of interspecific competition in nature?
- Predation
- Resource partitioning
- Competitive release
- Mutualism
Answer: Option B – Resource partitioning
6. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
- 8-nucleate and 8-celled
- 8-nucleate and 7-celled
- 7-nucleate and 8-celled
- 7-nucleate and 7-celled
Answer: Option B – 8-nucleate and 7-celled
7. What is the site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism?
- Leaf
- Shoot apex
- Stem
- Axillary bud
Answer: Option A – Leaf
8. Which of the below-given plants is monoecious?
- Cycas circinalis
- Carica papaya
- Chara
- Marchantia polymorpha
Answer: Option C – Chara
8. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
- a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
- b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
- c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
- d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
a b c d
- iv ii i iii
- iv i iii ii
- iii i iv ii
- ii iii iv i
Answer: Option C
9. Which of the below-given algae produce Carrageen?
- Blue-green algae
- Green algae
- Brown algae
- Red algae
Answer: Option D – Red algae
10. Which of the below-stated stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
- Telophase II
- Metaphase I
- Metaphase II
- Anaphase I
Answer: Option D – Anaphase I
11. How can mutants in plant cells be induced:
- Zeatin
- Kinetin
- Infrared rays
- Gamma rays
Answer: Option D – Gamma rays
12. In the following equation: GPP-R=NPP, what does R represent?
- Respiration losses
- Radiant energy
- Retardation factor
- Environment factor
Answer: Option A – Respiration losses
13. What is the plant hormone that is used to destroy weeds in a field?
- IBA
- IAA
- NAA
- 2, 4-D
Answer: Option D – 2, 4-D
14. Plants follow various pathways in response to the surroundings or phases of life to form multiple types of structures. What is the name of this ability?
- Maturity
- Elasticity
- Flexibility
- Plasticity
Answer: Option D – Plasticity
15. Which of the following statements is not correct?
- The pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
- The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted.
- The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright.
- The pyramid of energy is always upright.
Answer: Option C – The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally upright
16. Gemmae are present in:
- Some Liverworts
- Mosses
- Pteridophytes
- Some Gymnosperms
Answer: Option A – Some Liverworts
17. What is the first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Oxaloacetic acid
- Succinic acid
Answer: Option C – Oxaloacetic acid
18. Which of the below-mentioned algae has mannitol as reserve food material?
- Ulothrix
- Ectocarpus
- Gracilaria
- Volvox
Answer: Option B – Ectocarpus
19. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:
- Bright blue bands
- Yellow bands
- Bright orange bands
- Dark red bands
Answer: Option C – Bright orange bands
20. Diadelphous stamens are found in:
- China rose and citrus
- China rose
- Citrus
- Pea
Answer: Option D – Pea
21. Which ones mentioned below are not secondary metabolites in plants?
- Rubber, gums
- Morphine, codeine
- Amino acids, glucose
- Vinblastine, curcumin
Answer: Option C – Amino acids, glucose
Also Read:
22. The number of nutrients, namely carbon, phosphorus, nitrogen and calcium, present in the soil at any given time, can be referred to as:
- Standing crop
- Climax
- Climax community
- Standing state
Answer: Option D – Standing state
23. Genera such as Salvinia and Selaginella produce two types of spores. Such plants are called:
- Heterosporous
- Homosorus
- Heterosorus
- Homosporous
Answer: Option A – Heterosporous
24. Pollen grains retain their viability for months after release in which of the following pairs of families?
- Rosaceae; Leguminosae
- Poaceae; Rosaceae
- Poaceae; Leguminosae
- Poaceae; Solanaceae
Answer: Option A – Rosaceae; Leguminosae
25. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called:
- Polymorphic DNA
- Satellite DNA
- Repetitive DNA
- Single nucleotides
Answer: Option C – Repetitive DNA
26. Match Column 1 with Column 2.
Column 1 Column 2
- a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
- b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
- c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
- d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
a b c d
- iv iii ii i
- ii iv i iii
- i ii iii iv
- iii i iv ii
Answer: Option B
27. What is the role of RNA polymerase III while processing transcription in eukaryotes?
- Transcribes only snRNAs
- Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.85S)
- Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
- Transcribes precursor of mRNA
Answer: Option C – Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
28. In the exponential growth equation, Nt = N0ert e represents:
- The base of geometric logarithms
- The base of number logarithms
- The base of exponential logarithms
- The base of natural logarithms
Answer: Option D – The base of natural logarithms
29. Match List 1 with List 2.
List 1 List 2
- a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
- b) Unsaturated fatty acid (ii) Phosphodiester bonds
- c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
- d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the right answer from the options provided below.
a b c d
- iv iii i ii
- iv i ii iii
- i iv iii ii
- ii i iv iii
Answer: Option B
30. Match List 1 with List 2.
List 1 List 2
- a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesised
- b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
- c) Quiescent stage (iii) Interval between initiation and mitosis of DNA replication
- d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
Choose the right answer from the options provided below.
a b c d
- ii iv iii i
- iii ii i iv
- iv ii iii i
- iv i ii iii
Answer: Option D
31: Sperm receptors binding in mammals are present on:
- Zona pellucida
- Corona radiata
- Vitelline membrane
- Perivitelline space
Answer: Option A – Zona pellucida
32. Which meiotic prophase stage shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
- Pachytene
- Leptotene
- Zygotene
- Diakinesis
Answer: Option D – Diakinesis
33. Which unique recognition sequence is identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA:
- Poly (A) tail sequences
- Degenerate primer sequence
- Okazaki sequences
- Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
Answer: Option D – Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
34. Which of the below-mentioned statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
- These muscles have no striations
- They are involuntary muscles
- Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
- These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
Answer: Option C – Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
35. The organelles present in the endomembrane system are:
- Endoplasmic reticulum, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
- The endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles
- Golgi complex, Ribosomes, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
- Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Endoplasmic reticulum and Lysosomes
Answer: Option B – Endoplasmic reticulum, Lysosomes, Golgi complex and Vacuoles
36. How are venereal diseases spread?
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from an infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options provided below.
- (a), (b) and (c) only
- (b), (c) and (d) only
- (b) and (c) only
- (a) and (c) only
Answer: Option C
37. In a cross between a female and male, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what will be the percentage of the progeny that will be diseased?
- 25 %
- 50 %
- 75 %
- 90 %
Answer: Option A – 25 %
38. Sphincter of Oddi is present at:
- Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
- Gastro-oesophageal junction
- Junction of jejunum and duodenum
- Ileo-caecal junction
Answer: Option A – Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
39. Which of the following mentioned below is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
- Improve protein content
- Improve resistance to diseases
- Improve vitamin content
- Improve micronutrient and mineral content
Answer: Option B – Improve resistance to diseases
40. Erythropoietin hormone that stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
- Alpha cells of the pancreas
- The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis
- The cells of bone marrow
- Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Answer: Option D – Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Conclusion
Before appearing for the NEET examination, the aspirants should put in a lot of effort in order to obtain maximum marks. In the meantime, they have to practice the previously asked questions to improve their time management skills. It will help them get used to the exam pattern and solve the answers correctly in the exam. In this article, we have included some of the frequently asked questions in NEET Biology in the past few years.
FAQs about NEET Biology Previous Year Questions with Solutions
1. How many Biology questions are asked in NEET?
There are a total of 200 questions in the NEET examination. In that, Biology alone accounts for 100 questions; 50 from Botany and 50 from Zoology. Moreover, they will be divided into sections A and B. Each question carries 4 marks, and the students have to answer 180 questions out of the 200. Therefore, the maximum mark for the NEET exam is 720.
2. Is scoring 400 in NEET a simple task?
Nothing is easy in this world unless you work for it. So, the candidates should put in enormous amounts of time and hard work along with sheer dedication and determination in order to achieve a target of 400 in the NEET exam.
3. How can I crack NEET on my first attempt?
NEET can be cracked by anyone on the first attempt. All you need to do is prepare the major subjects and the topics that come under them. For example, Biology covers major portions that come in the exam. So, you have to prepare for Biology, comprising both Zoology and Botany, to score more in the subject and ultimately clear NEET on the first attempt.
4. Which type of questions is asked in NEET from Biology?
Animal kingdom, biological classification, the morphology of flowering plants, the principle of inheritance and variation, sexual reproduction in flowering plants, and the molecular basis of inheritance are the chapters with high weightage in the NEET Biology section
5. How do I memorize NEET Biology?
The most important thing is to know your biology syllabus for the NEET exam thoroughly. Students are advised to start their preparation with the NCERT textbook for biology as NCERT books are seen to be the best. It is advised to split the syllabus for biology into 3 parts, for simple preparation.