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NEET UG Papers 2020 | Question Papers | Question & Answers Key | Text Solutions English | Question & Answers Key Hindi | |
NEET Code-W2(14-10-2020) |
× 1. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again
between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
(1) 0.5
(2) 1.0
(3) –1.0
(4) Zero
Answer (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (3)
(μ0 = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 3.14 × 10–4 T
(2) 6.28 × 10–5 T
(3) 3.14 × 10–5 T
(4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
Answer (4)
(1)
(2) μA
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
(1) 0.5 N/C
(2) 1 N/C
(3) 5 N/C
(4) zero
Answer (4)
× 6. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?
(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(2) Deuteron atom
(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) Hydrogen atom
Answer (3)
× 7. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 12 × 103 J
(2) 24 × 103 J
(3) 48 × 103 J
(4) 10 × 103 J
Answer (2)× 8. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
(1) 102 V
(2) 103 V
(3) 104 V
(4) 10 V
Answer (3)× 9. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 32 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 48 N
Answer (1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
× 11. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?
(1) four times
(2) one-fourth
(3) zero
(4) doubled
Answer (3)
× 12. A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :
(1) 2.05 A
(2) 2.5 A
(3) 25.1 A
(4) 1.7 A
Answer (2)
(1) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
(2) 7.32 × 10–7 rad
(3) 6.00 × 10–7 rad
(4) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
Answer (4)
(1) 340 m
(2) 320 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 360 m
Answer (3)
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(1) 0.2 kg/m3
(2) 0.1 kg/m3
(3) 0.02 kg/m3
(4) 0.5 kg/m3
Answer (1)
× 16. When a uranium isotope is bombarded with a neutron, it generates
, three neutrons and :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
× 17. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) reverse bias only
(2) both forward bias and reverse bias
(3) increase in forward current
(4) forward bias only
Answer (1)
(1)
(2)
(3) zero
(4) π rad
Answer (4)
(μ0 = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1
(2) 2.4π × 10–5 T m A–1
(3) 2.4π × 10–7 T m A–1
(4) 2.4π × 10–4 T m A–1
Answer (4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
(1) g/2
(2) g/5
(3) g/10
(4) g
Answer (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (1)
(1) 200 V
(2) 400 V
(3) zero
(4) 50 V
Answer (1)
(1) [ML2T–2]
(2) [ML0T–2]
(3) [ML–1 T–2]
(4) [MLT–2]
Answer (3)
× 25. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly
(1) 0.6
(2) 0.06
(3) 0.006
(4) 6
Answer (2)
× 26. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be
(1) 524 Hz
(2) 536 Hz
(3) 537 Hz
(4) 523 Hz
Answer (1)
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are
(1) 47 kΩ, 10%
(2) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
(3) 470 Ω, 5%
(4) 470 kΩ, 5%
Answer (3)
(1) 30° < ib < 45°
(2) 45° < ib < 90°
(3) ib = 90°
(4) 0° < ib < 30°
Answer (2)
(∈0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
(1) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
(2) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
(3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
(4) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
Answer (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
(1) 1.0 × 10–1 m
(2) 1.5 × 10–1 m
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 m
(4) 1.0 × 10–2 m
Answer (1)
× 32. For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.
(2) Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
(3) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.
Answer (3)
× 33. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : ( c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : c
(3) 1 : c2
(4) c : 1
Answer (1)
(1) 2.5 × 106
(2) 2.5 × 10–6
(3) 2.25 × 10–15
(4) 2.25 × 1015
Answer (1)
(1) 1.28 × 105 N/C
(2) 1.28 × 106 N/C
(3) 1.28 × 107 N/C
(4) 1.28 × 104 N/C
Answer (1)
× 36. Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
(1) 9.98 m
(2) 9.980 m
(3) 9.9 m
(4) 9.9801 m
Answer (1)
× 37. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(1) half
(2) four times
(3) one-fourth
(4) double
Answer (2)
× 38. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
(1) adiabatic
(2) isochoric
(3) isobaric
(4) isothermal
Answer (1)
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J
(2) 1.5 × 1013 J
(3) 0.5 × 1013 J
(4) 4.5 × 1016 J
Answer (1)
× 40. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 5.0 g
(2) 10.0 g
(3) 20.0 g
(4) 2.5 g
Answer (2)
× 41. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(1) 0.25 mm
(2) 0.5 mm
(3) 1.0 mm
(4) 0.01 mm
Answer (2)
(1)
A | B | Y |
0 | 0 | 0 |
0 | 1 | 1 |
1 | 0 | 1 |
1 | 1 | 1 |
(2)
A | B | Y |
0 | 0 | 1 |
0 | 1 | 1 |
1 | 0 | 1 |
1 | 1 | 0 |
(3)
A | B | Y |
0 | 0 | 1 |
0 | 1 | 0 |
1 | 0 | 0 |
1 | 1 | 0 |
(4)
A | B | Y |
0 | 0 | 0 |
0 | 1 | 0 |
1 | 0 | 0 |
1 | 1 | 1 |
Answer (4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (1)
× 44. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:
(1) insulators only
(2) semiconductors only
(3) insulators and semiconductors
(4) metals
Answer (3)
× 45. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
(1) 50 cm
(2) 67 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 33 cm
Answer (2)
× 1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:
(1) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
(2) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
(4) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
Answer (2)
× 2. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
(1) (a), (c), (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c)
Answer (4)
× 3. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is:
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
Answer (4)(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
(1) Only NaCl
(2) Only MgCl2
(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
Answer (1)
(1) 2 × 10–8 M
(2) 1 × 10–13 M
(3) 1 × 108 M
(4) 2 × 10–13 M
Answer (4)
(1) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
(2) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
(3) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
(4) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
Answer (3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
× 9. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is
(1) 4.90 BM
(2) 5.92 BM
(3) 2.84 BM
(4) 3.87 BM
Answer (1)
× 10. Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?
(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
Answer (3)
× 11. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
(1) Copper
(2) Calcium
(3) Potassium
(4) Iron
Answer (3)(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
× 13. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 200 s
(2) 500 s
(3) 1000 s
(4) 100 s
Answer (2)
× 14. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol
(2) Tert. butyl alcohol
(3) Isobutyl alcohol
(4) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer (2)
× 15. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(1) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(2) polybutadiene
(3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
(4) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
Answer (4)
× 16. Identify the correct statement from the following :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer (3)
(1) q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
(2) q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
(3) q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0
(4) q = 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0
Answer (4)(1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
Answer (2)
× 19. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
× 20. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in respectively, are
(1) 104, 71 and 71
(2) 71, 71 and 104
(3) 175, 104 and 71
(4) 71, 104 and 71 Answer (4)
(1) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
(2) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
(3) The oxidation states of chromium in and
are not the same.
(4) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
Answer (3)
× 22. Which of the following is a cationic detergent?
(1) Sodium stearate
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Answer (2)
× 23. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.80 K
(2) 0.40 K
(3) 0.60 K
(4) 0.20 K
Answer (2)
× 24. Identify the incorrect match.
Name | IUPAC Official Name | ||
(a) | Unnilunium | (i) | Mendelevium |
(b) | Unniltrium | (ii) | Lawrencium |
(c) | Unnilhexium | (iii) | Seaborgium |
(d) | Unununnium | (iv) | Darmstadtium |
(1) (b), (ii)
(2) (c), (iii)
(3) (d), (iv)
(4) (a), (i)
Answer (3)
× 25. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is
(1) Benzene + Toluene
(2) Acetone + Chloroform
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
Answer (4)
× 26. Match the following :
Oxide | Nature | ||
(a) | CO | (i) | Basic |
(b) | BaO | (ii) | Neutral |
(c) | Al2O3 | (iii) | Acidic |
(d) | Cl2O7 | (iv) | Amphoteric |
Which of the following is correct option?
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
(2) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(3) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(4) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
Answer (1)
× 27. Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ?
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
Answer (3)
× 28. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Cross Aldol condensation
(4) Aldol condensation
Answer (3)
(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups
(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups
(3) Hyperconjugation
(4) – I effect of – CH3 groups
Answer (3)
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
Answer (2)× 31. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(1) Alanine
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Lysine
(4) Serine
Answer (3)(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2) Cu(OH)2
(3) CuCO3·Cu(OH)2
(4) CuSO4
Answer (1)
× 33. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is :
[Use atomic masses (in g mol–1) : N = 14, Ar = 40]
(1) 12 bar
(2) 15 bar
(3) 18 bar
(4) 9 bar
Answer (2)
× 34. Identify the correct statement from the following :
(1) Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
Answer (3)
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at 300 K, the value of at the same temperature will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
Answer (4)
× 36. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) O2
(4) He2
Answer (4)
× 37. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in
(1) heat of reaction
(2) threshold energy
(3) collision frequency
(4) activation energy
Answer (1)× 38. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(2) n-Heptane
(3) n-Butane
(4) n-Hexane
Answer (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
× 40. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be
(1) Oxygen gas
(2) H2S gas
(3) SO2 gas
(4) Hydrogen gas
Answer (1)
× 41. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?
CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
(1) 0 to + 4
(2) – 4 to + 4
(3) 0 to – 4
(4) + 4 to + 4
Answer (2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)
× 43. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
(1) Solubility
(2) Stability of the colloidal particles
(3) Size of the colloidal particles
(4) Viscosity
Answer (2)
× 44. Paper chromatography is an example of
(1) Partition chromatography
(2) Thin layer chromatography
(3) Column chromatography
(4) Adsorption chromatography
Answer (1)
× 45. Match the following and identify the correct option.
(a) | CO(g) + H2(g) | (i) | Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2 |
(b) | Temporary hardness of water | (ii) | An electron deficient hydride |
(c) | B2H6 | (iii) | Synthesis gas |
(d) | H2O2 | (iv) | Non-planar structure |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
(2) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
(3) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
(4) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
Answer (4)
× 1. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
(1) 2.5 meters
(2) 2.2 meters
(3) 2.7 meters
(4) 2.0 meters
Answer (2)
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Ctenophora
Answer (1)
× 3. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Gregarious, polyphagous pest | (i) | Asterias |
(b) | Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry | (ii) | Scorpion |
(c) | Book lungs | (iii) | Ctenoplana |
(d) | Bioluminescence | (iv) | Locusta |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
(2) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
(3) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
(4) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
Answer (1)
(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Polysomes
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (2)
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of auricles
Answer (2)
× 6. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Floating Ribs | (i) | Located between second and seventh ribs |
(b) | Acromion | (ii) | Head of the Humerus |
(c) | Scapula | (iii) | Clavicle |
(d) | Glenoid cavity | (iv) | Do not connect with the sternum |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
(2) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(3) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
(4) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
Answer (3)
(1) Sutton
(2) Boveri
(3) Morgan
(4) Mendel
Answer (3)
(1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf
(2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
(3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
Answer (2)
× 9. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Pituitary gland | (i) | Grave’s disease |
(b) | Thyroid gland | (ii) | Diabetes mellitus |
(c) | Adrenal gland | (iii) | Diabetes insipidus |
(d) | Pancreas | (iv) | Addison’s disease |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
(2) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
(3) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer (2)
× 10. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
(a) | Bacillus thuringiensis | (i) | Cloning vector |
(b) | Thermus aquaticus | (ii) | Construction of first rDNA molecule |
(c) | Agrobacterium tumefaciens | (iii) | DNA polymerase |
(d) | Salmonella typhimurium | (iv) | Cry proteins |
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
(2) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(3) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(4) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
Answer (1)
(1) Glycerol, trypsin
(2) Cellulose, lecithin
(3) Inulin, insulin
(4) Chitin, cholesterol
Answer (3)
(1) DNA helicase
(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase
(4) DNA ligase
Answer (3)
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous system.
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
(3) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
Answer (2)
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) only (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
Answer (4)
(1) Mutational breeding
(2) Cross breeding
(3) Inbreeding
(4) Out crossing
Answer (2)
(1) Collagen
(2) Lectin
(3) Insulin
(4) Haemoglobin
Answer (1)
(1) 2
(2) 14
(3) 8
(4) 4
Answer (2)
(1) Micropyle
(2) Nucellus
(3) Chalaza
(4) Hilum
Answer (4)
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat
(2) They have DNA with protein coat
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat
(4) They have RNA with protein coat
Answer (1)
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero
Answer (1)
(1) Nitrate alone
(2) Ammonia and oxygen
(3) Ammonia and hydrogen
(4) Ammonia alone
Answer (3)
× 22. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Typhoid | (i) | Wuchereria |
(b) | Pneumonia | (ii) | Plasmodium |
(c) | Filariasis | (iii) | Salmonella |
(d) | Malaria | (iv) | Haemophilus |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(2) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
(3) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
(4) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
Answer (1)
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
Answer (4)
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
Answer (4)
× 25. Match the following with respect to meiosis
(a) | Zygotene | (i) | Terminalization |
(b) | Pachytene | (ii) | Chiasmata |
(c) | Diplotene | (iii) | Crossing over |
(d) | Diakinesis | (iv) | Synapsis |
Select the correct option from the following
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
(3) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
(4) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer (1)
(1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
(3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
(4) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
Answer (4)
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
Answer (4)
(1) Alfred Wallace
(2) Charles Darwin
(3) Oparin
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
Answer (4)
(1) Primary roots
(2) Prop roots
(3) Lateral roots
(4) Fibrous roots
Answer (4)
(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
Answer (1)
(1) High concentration of Progesterone
(2) Low concentration of LH
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
Answer (4)
(1) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Compound epithelial cells
(4) Squamous epithelial cells
Answer (1)
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
(2) High reflection of light from snow
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
Answer (1)
× 34. Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants
(a) | Iron | (i) | Photolysis of water |
(b) | Zinc | (ii) | Pollen germination |
(c) | Boron | (iii) | Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis |
(d) | Manganese | (iv) | IAA biosynthesis |
Select the correct option
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(2) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
(3) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
(4) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
Answer (2)
(1) Fungal diseases
(2) Plant nematodes
(3) Insect predators
(4) Insect pests
Answer (4)
(1) Superior ovary
(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Half inferior ovary
(4) Inferior ovary
Answer (4)
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(2) Release of Green House gases
(3) Disposal of e-wastes
(4) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
Answer (1)
(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Answer (3)
(1) Sporozoites
(2) Female gametocytes
(3) Male gametocytes
(4) Trophozoites
Answer (1)
(1) At the time of copulation
(2) After zygote formation
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
(4) Prior to ovulation
Answer (3)
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
Answer (1)
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
(1) (c) and (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (d) and (c)
Answer (3)
× 43. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Clostridium butylicum | (i) | Cyclosporin-A |
(b) | Trichoderma polysporum | (ii) | Butyric Acid |
(c) | Monascus purpureus | (iii) | Citric Acid |
(d) | Aspergillus niger | (iv) | Blood cholesterol lowering agent |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
(3) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(4) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
Answer (1)
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(2) Anabaena and Volvox
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum
Answer (3)
(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(2) PS-I to NADP+
(3) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
Answer (4)
(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
Answer (2)
(1) Growth response
(2) Defence action
(3) Effect on reproduction
(4) Nutritive value
Answer (2)
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(4) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
Answer (1)
(1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant trait
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
(3) Thalassemia – X linked
(4) Haemophilia – Y linked
Answer (2)
(1) Natality
(2) Mortality
(3) Species interaction
(4) Sex ratio
Answer (3)
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food particles
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(3) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
(4) They are not bound by any membrane
Answer (1)
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
Identify the category of plant and its part :(1) Monocotyledonous root
(2) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) Dicotyledonous root
(4) Monocotyledonous stem
Answer (4)
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
(3) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
Answer (1)
(1) Water currents only
(2) Wind and water
(3) Insects and water
(4) Insects or wind
Answer (4)
(1) Floating debris
(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Primary sludge
Answer (3)
(1) Root pressure
(2) Imbibition
(3) Plasmolysis
(4) Transpiration
Answer (1)
(1) Ducts of salivary glands
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) Eustachian tube
(4) Lining of intestine
Answer (2)
(1) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
Answer (4)
(1) Abscisic acid
(2) Phenolic acid
(3) Para-ascorbic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid
Answer (4)
(1) 20 million
(2) 50 million
(3) 7 million
(4) 1.5 million
Answer (3)
× 61. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(a) | Fourth trophic level | (i) | Crow |
(b) | Second trophic level | (ii) | Vulture |
(c) | First trophic level | (iii) | Rabbit |
(d) | Third trophic level | (iv) | Grass |
Select the correct option
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
(2) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
(3) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(4) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
Answer (4)
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3) Recognition of an anti-codon
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
Answer (2)
(1) Pteris
(2) Marchantia
(3) Equisetum
(4) Salvinia
Answer (3)
× 64. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | 6-15 pairs of gill slits | (i) | Trygon |
(b) | Heterocercal caudal fin | (ii) | Cyclostomes |
(c) | Air Bladder | (iii) | Chondrichthyes |
(d) | Poison sting | (iv) | Osteichthyes |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(2) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
(3) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
(4) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
Answer (4)
(1) G1 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) M phase
Answer (4)
× 66. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal
(2) Ileum is a highly coiled part
(3) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum
(4) Ileum opens into small intestine
Answer (2)
× 67. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(1) GIFT and ZIFT
(2) ICSI and ZIFT
(3) GIFT and ICSI
(4) ZIFT and IUT
Answer (4)
× 68. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a) only
Answer (3)
× 69. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during
(1) Zygotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Leptotene
(4) Pachytene
Answer (2)
× 70. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Organ of Corti | (i) | Connects middle ear and pharynx |
(b) | Cochlea | (ii) | Coiled part of the labyrinth |
(c) | Eustachian tube | (iii) | Attached to the oval window |
(d) | Stapes | (iv) | Located on the basilar membrane |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
(2) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
(3) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
(4) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
Answer (2)
× 71. The ovary is half inferior in :
(1) Mustard
(2) Sunflower
(3) Plum
(4) Brinjal
Answer (3)
× 72. Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
(1) Glutamic Acid
(2) Lysine
(3) Valine
(4) Tyrosine
Answer (2)
× 73. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Eosinophils | (i) | Immune response |
(b) | Basophils | (ii) | Phagocytosis |
(c) | Neutrophils | (iii) | Release histaminase, destructive enzymes |
(d) | Lymphocytes | (iv) | Release granules containing histamine |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
(2) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
(3) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
(4) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
Answer (4)
× 74. Match the following
(a) | Inhibitor of catalytic activity | (i) | Ricin |
(b) | Possess peptide bonds | (ii) | Malonate |
(c) | Cell wall material in fungi | (iii) | Chitin |
(d) | Secondary metabolite | (iv) | Collagen |
Choose the correct option from the following
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
(2) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
(3) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
(4) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
Answer (4)
× 75. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
(3) Nuclear Division takes place.
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
Answer (2)
× 76. Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin
Answer (1)
× 77. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles.
Answer (2)
× 78. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
Answer (2)
× 79. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of
(1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(2) caseinogen into casein
(3) pepsinogen into pepsin
(4) protein into polypeptides
Answer (1)
× 80. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
(1) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(2) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5'
(3) 5' - GGATCC - 3'
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(4) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
Answer (4)
× 81. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Bt cotton | (i) | Gene therapy |
(b) | Adenosine deaminase deficiency | (ii) | Cellular defence |
(c) | RNAi | (iii) | Detection of HIV infection |
(d) | PCR | (iv) | Bacillus thuringiensis |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) |
(2) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
(3) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
(4) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
Answer (4)
× 82. Floridean starch has structure similar to
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen
(2) Mannitol and algin
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
(4) Starch and cellulose
Answer (1)
× 83. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E.Coli.
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
Answer (2)
× 84. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Industrial melanism
(3) Natural selection
(4) Adaptive radiation
Answer (1)
× 85. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) only (d)
(4) only (a)
Answer (2)
× 86. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
(2) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2
Answer (2)
× 87. The process of growth is maximum during
(1) Lag phase
(2) Senescence
(3) Dormancy
(4) Log phase
Answer (4)
× 88. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
(1) Madagascar
(2) Himalayas
(3) Amazon forests
(4) Western Ghats of India
Answer (3)
× 89. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(1) Ori site
(2) Palindromic sequence
(3) Recognition site
(4) Selectable marker
Answer (1)
× 90. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II | ||
(a) | Placenta | (i) | Androgens |
(b) | Zona pellucida | (ii) | Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) |
(c) | Bulbo-urethral glands | (iii) | Layer of the ovum |
(d) | Leydig cells | (iv) | Lubrication of the Penis |
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
(1) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) |
(2) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
(3) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
(4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer (3)
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